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[Jeff Taylor <shdwdrgn AT sourpuss.net>]

I know I've been asked this question countless times, and I know I've mentioned 
it on IRC, but for the life of me, I can't recall any explanation other than 
"that's just the way we've always done it"...

If this is so, it makes me wonder if the first IPv6 address was given a new 
hostname simply because the person adding it didn't realize that both types of 
records can point to the same hostname.  We've got a lot of folks setting up 
tunnels in the past couple years, and I expect that in the next couple years we 
will see a move towards ISPs providing native IPv6 addressing, so this is 
something that really should be resolved now, so we can get a policy posted to 
answer further questions...


On 01/28/2011 06:35 PM, NovaKing wrote:
> I've noticed that each new T2 gets a unique fqdn, but I also notice that a
> server which has both IPv4 and IPv6 each get a different fqdn, is this
> required?
>
> If you want each IP to get a unique fqdn maybe a nicer approach would be
> something like ns{n}{.ipv6}.{tld}.dns.opennic.glue
>
> Example:
>
> ns1.se.dns.opennic.glue = 192.121.121.14
> ns1.ipv6.se.dns.opennic.glue = 2a01:298:3:100::14
>
> at least this way the numbering system doesn't just increment so quickly
> with servers with both IPv4/IPv6.
>
> But realistically ns1.se.dns.opennic.glue should simply have both A and AAAA
> records assigned to it.
>
>
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